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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 11:05

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

How did Neo defeat the architect at the end of The Matrix: Reloaded? Was it solely due to his belief in himself or were there other factors at play?

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What is the reason for the high number of stray dogs in Thailand? What measures are being taken to address this issue?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.